A stone age, exclusive of metals, common to the whole world and to all mankind, is therefore an untenable hypothesis according to the testimony of history. If it existed anywhere it must have been only partially, locally, and contemporaneously with this traditional knowledge of metals, which seems to be historically proved.[242] I may at least be permitted to believe in the accuracy of Professor Rawlinson's conclusions, and to regard them as the verdict of history: and if the historical arguments so pronounce, why should the geological or palaeontological argument override it? Is not history supreme on its own ground--and if Scripture is always found in perfect consistency with history, is it not as much as in strictness we should have a right to expect? "Tradidit mundum disputationi eorum" (Eccles. iii. 11).

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